most appropriate treatment?

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aimskyhigh

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  1. 1. A 33-year-old house painter sustained an abrasion and superficial laceration of the left shoulder 2 days ago. He presents to the outpatient clinic with an area of erythema extending 3 cm along the area of skin abrasion and superficial laceration. There is an area of fluctuance beneath the area, and the tenderness does not appear to extend beyond the area. His temperature and vital signs are normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?

Select one:
a. Topical antibiotic ointment application and dressing changes
b. Incision and drainage of the area, followed by 1-week course of oral antibiotic therapy
c. Incision and debridement of the soft tissue infection
d. Oral antibiotics for 3 days followed by reassessment and drainage if needed
e. Oral antibiotics therapy for 1 week


2.
A 38-year-old man with a history of injection heroin abuse presents to the emergency center with circumferential tender and tense swelling over his left upper arm. The entire area is minimally erythematous but exquisitely tender. He indicated that he had injected some black tar heroin into the area 6 days ago. His temperature is 39.50C (103.10F), heart rate 125 beats/min, and WBC 46,000/mm3. Ultrasound of the upper extremity revealed no evidence of venous thromboses or soft tissue fluid collections. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?


Select one:
a. Perform radical debridement of the affected area.
b. Admit the patient to the hospital for IV antibiotics therapy for his severe cellulites, and, if this does not improve, repeat the ultrasound to look for an abscess.
c. Perform radical debridement of the affected area, followed by IV antibiotics therapy.
d. Perform a transesophageal echocardiography to rule out endocarditis and treat with systemic IV antibiotics.
e. Administer IV antibiotics and hyperbaric therapy.

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I& D + abx- fluctuance = abscess. Also sounds like there is cellulitis extening beyond the abrasion as well which is why I would also add abx. In practice, no one really just I&Ds anything without antibiotics

Exquisitely tender (ie tenderness out of proportion to physical exam findings) is classic for necrotizing fasciitis. He is also septic suggesting this is more than just simple cellulitis. B/C he is septic so he needs IV antibiotics so that must be one of the choices. I would also debride the area (so C).
 
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agree with above. However i admit i thought of B for question 2. Not sure if out of proportion to physical exam findings is enough to go in and debride something but that made be the case for exam purposes?
 
agree with above. However i admit i thought of B for question 2. Not sure if out of proportion to physical exam findings is enough to go in and debride something but that made be the case for exam purposes?

Its much more clinical feel in real life. If they paint a picture of pain out proportion / pain extending beyond the region of erythema / crepitus on the test, treat it like nec fac imo
 
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Thank you for your response guys. Sorry, got busy with my rotation and presentations. So, 1. b and 2.c. Thanks for the explanation...
 
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