"Manila Central University" cited as inadqeuate

This forum made possible through the generous support of SDN members, donors, and sponsors. Thank you.

ivyleague22ny

Member
10+ Year Member
15+ Year Member
20+ Year Member
Joined
Jul 13, 2002
Messages
76
Reaction score
0
hey guys,
I don't know about the other med schools
in the Philippines, but I would definitely
think first before applying to the medical school in
Manila Central University:

check out link to article:

http://www.ctnow.com/news/specials/hc-medday1.artjun29,0,3700102.story


highlights include:

"The schools - the Autonomous University of Guadalajara in Mexico, Howard University in Washington, Manila Central University in the Philippines and Meharry Medical College in Nashville - ranked at the bottom in separate analyses of three databases containing records of disciplinary actions against thousands of physicians across the United States."


***********************
Cornell University, AB '00
Univ. Minnesota Medical School

Members don't see this ad.
 
Revealing article!

Inerestingly, the stats point to 4 schools as the biggest sources of the problem doctors (by 10x), while the USMLE + residency match passed them all through!

The paper's study (from medical databases of disciplinary actions taken on US doctors) notes All 4 of the schools, 2 in the US, have at least one thing in common: extremely low admissions scores + gpa's.

MCAT scores are linked to basic science knowledge, which some studies have concluded is important in determining future "success" of a physician; while gpa is somewhat correlated with IQ and is a good indicator of many future behaviors (albeit gpa is non-standardized across schools). Not necessarily the cause of the problems, but the correlation is...interesting.

Maybe this will spur changes to the USMLE (make it harder?), and a quicker adoption of the relatively new CSA for all domestic students, to better test for clinical competency/methodology. If appropriate changes are made (i.e., to the tests themselves), they would help the prospects of competent IMGs.

On the other hand..the two domestic schools cited are the traditional african-american schools (Howard, Meharry), therefore it may be politically incorrect to even factor in domestic schools when addressing the problems, which means grads of foreign school could be singled out / punished in any "attempt" to rectify.

Hope for regulatory competency...

-Pitman
 
ivyleague22ny:

If possible, please consider changing the title of this thread, since the *ramifications* affect ALL IMGs.

Actually, I'm sure the consideration is possible, just not sure about the action under consideration :)

-Pitman
 
Members don't see this ad :)
Originally posted by pitman
ivyleague22ny:

If possible, please consider changing the title of this thread, since the *ramifications* affect ALL IMGs.

Actually, I'm sure the consideration is possible, just not sure about the action under consideration :)

-Pitman

I have to agree; in that article, Manila Central is a rather minor part, comparatively.
 
oh, no! i have a couple friends at MCU in manila
 
Here is the list of schools with the number of disciplinary actions per school. Notice that Manila had 39 infractions versus 120 for Loma Linda. On a percentage basis, Manila was at 2.9 percent versus 2.19 for UC Irvine, hardly an earthshaking differences especially considering the small sample size.

You also have to factor in where these graduates did their residencies which is even more important. If they were really incompetent they should not have been allowed to complete their residency.

Also for what and how severe were the infractions? Would the location where the physician is practicing be a factor?


http://www.ctnow.com/media/acrobat/2003-06/8395716.pdf
 
Location may a factor because if you are practicing in suburban Wisconsin most of the patients may be relatively healthy. If you are practicing in the poorer areas of Los Angeles you might miss some third world disease that the guy in Wisconsin never sees.

I am not excusing incompetence. It exists among the Loma Linda graduates and the graduates of Manila. We need better mechanisms for removing incompetent doctors.
 
hey guys,

How do you change the title of your post?

Also I would like to emphasize that I do NOT
mean to discredit all med schools in
the Philippine or international schools.

I know Universidad de Santo Tomas (UST)
and UP Manila are highly respected medical
schools in Manila that produces competent
physicians and surgeons..many whom practice
in leading hospitals here in the US.

I do definitely agree that the US must instill
more stringent requirements. I'm still only
a med student, so I don't know how licenses
are given out to practicing physicians, but I do agree
that physicians or surgeons who misdiagnose
a patient or perform a surgical procedure incorrectly
should retake some form of re-certification examination
or what-have-you to ensure that they are competent
practitioners.



Good converation though in this post! Keep it coming! :)

***********************
Cornell University, AB '00
Univ. of Minnesota Med School Class of 2007
 
Originally posted by skypilot
...On a percentage basis, Manila was at 2.9 percent versus 2.19 for UC Irvine, hardly an earthshaking differences especially considering the small sample size.

You also have to factor in where these graduates did their residencies which is even more important. If they were really incompetent they should not have been allowed to complete their residency.

Also for what and how severe were the infractions? Would the location where the physician is practicing be a factor?

http://www.ctnow.com/media/acrobat/2003-06/8395716.pdf

Well, actually they are pretty different considering the sample size (not considered small by the AMA, which is receptive of IMGs, and isn't racist, lest a knee-jerk response is "ulterior motive?") and *range* (but note that the larger the sample, the smoother the continuum, making it inherently EASIER to point to one school singled out and another that is barely not, where results are not "earthshaking"ly different).

But even more damning is that there were three databases looked at, two (independent) states and an independently collated national one. In all three, the same 4 schools were in the bottom 5%, adding to statistical validity.

Also keep in mind that the article notes the national stats are under-representative (e.g., in the more complete data set for California, 10.24% Manilla vs. 7.39% UC Irvine, the latter of which is ALSO in the bottom decile!).

Certainly, where residency was done would be important, and it may be that there are geographic clusters of where the physicians practice that should be looked at as (statistical) factors, ...in determining the root CAUSE of the problems. Further, "really incompetent" is not a useful criterion, for what is important about the study is the correlation it found with certain schools, not the amount of incompetency, or the root cause of the problems, although certainly schools/residency programs/licensing boards should (will) examine the possibilities (more below).

But if either of those factors were somewhat determined by school attended (e.g., troublesome states/residency programs are most receptive to school x), results are nonetheless damning to the schools in question, and if not dependent, still should not be dismissed -- the claim isn't that the troublesome schools necessarily don't teach well, but that the correlation exists (and another that those schools have lower admissions standards)...the two int'l schools *may* be getting penalized in terms of residency choices, and the two domestic *in theory* may be getting penalized by racist residency policies, but the result is the same -- stats don't say anything aside from what they state, i.e., grads from some schools have had increased rates of being disciplined, and this is not to be dismissed via extenuating hypotheticals. I would think a valid (statistical) question is, do the stats have any prediction value?

As to the argument (taken independently) that the worst students should not have passed their residency:

1) there will always be a distribution of results, with tails, so unless the residency programs at the bottom turn out to be non-random (TBD), argument makes no sense;

2) argument is a "turn" in debate-speak, i.e., their schools should arguably not have let them graduate. Yes, training continues after school, so schools cannot *necessarily* be accused of graduating more incompetents, and likewise if doctors practiced without residency, probably more total disciplinary action would be taken (less training), thus quality of residency training certainly matters; but by same token, if ultimate competency of their practicing grads is of concern, those schools who for example may be "penalized" in the residency matching process (still a dependency in the endpoints) arguably ought to hold back more students, or maybe get better state residency agreements. Nevertheless, med school candidates should look carefully at the implications of going to school x, as the stat as a probability still has meaning [think of why any such stats might matter to "you", not how they necessarily reflect on the actual quality of the school].

The bigger picture is that certainly, with any certification/assessment process, there will be a range in the measure (ideally, a normal curve), and those on the bottom, wherever the bottom is, will be termed, "problematic". The interesting result isn't some supposed arbitrary numerical cutoff defining incompetence, but that the tail is not random, that those data points correlate well with 4 schools, across several data sets. I'd personally like to see the same data matched to USMLE, MCAT and college gpa, as I too have hypotheses, but alas, this will never happen and thus they are untestable.

Either way, if policy-makers above the school level decide to change policy (likely for the wrong, that is, unsupported reasons), they could still make "good" decisions, i.e., by improving the assessment methods (..add CSA for all, which is going to happen eventually anyway), or they could make dumb decisions, like penalize int'l schools (state or fed residency program requirements) over hurting domestic minority ones. But the more I think about it (as I edit my original post), the more I'm convinced that nothing *new* will come about at those higher levels, since it would be dangerous politically to even go there, to invite the "race" card (consider this: the Establishment has had the same raw data for years). Thus, the study matters only for intellectual curiosity and for those to reflect on how they might be affected probabilistically. And *maybe*, hopefully, to speed up what's already coming down the pipeline -- CSA for all (thus, help competent IMGs). Who wants to write their congressmen?

-Pitman
 
Letters to the editor:

1 from Howard Univ., complaining about the implication that Howard is sub-standard (the sub-title of the article is indeed inflammatory), using the same faulty reasoning as above to imply similar scores (in one database) between two schools defeats the importance of the correlation;

1 from a CT doctor who talks about the importance of the entire progression over med school alone;

0 look at the data with any real insight into statistics (aside from saying, "residency and state of practice are important to look at", which I suppose the paper deserved, considering its subtitle, "4 schools that flunk").

-Pitman
 
The journalist that wrote the study forgot that correlation does not imply causation.

Also the study does not tell you what the infractions were for. What if the infractions were for over prescription of oxycontin or some other matter that does not imply a lack of training?

An individual student who is determined to come out of these schools a well trained doctor has nothing to fear.

A lot of infractions seem to be coming from sue happy California!
 
Originally posted by skypilot
The journalist that wrote the study forgot that correlation does not imply causation.

Aside from the sub-title of the article (often changed by editors), I don't think that's really the case -- they reported a dependency, then explored possible reasons for it, reporting that the two domestic schools were at the bottom of a quality-ranking NSF-funded survey many years ago, and reporting the only other known (due to restricted access to relevant data) commonality among those schools that can reasonably explain the correlation -- low admissions standards -- and even gave counter-arguments/voices to the notion that the schools aren't teaching well. Granted, the tone is set by the inflammatory "4 that flunk", but ignoring title (as I do, since usually sensationalized fluff, and hyperbolic since they DO metaphorically "flunk" the statistical test ;)), there isn't much to argue with, only with certain inferences that otherwise aren't being made. The correlation exists, is found in multiple databases, and deserves attention, as the authors have brought.

Also the study does not tell you what the infractions were for. What if the infractions were for over prescription of oxycontin or some other matter that does not imply a lack of training?

Granted, to move beyond the interesting correlation, this will be important, but this a *next* step, as it is one that the data available to the authors cannot give. By spurring discussion, it may generate the kind of pressure that Ralph Nader hasn't been able to exert, to force action to look at the variables that VERY FEW are privvy to. Found correlations serve precisely to be explained, and the article just may allow that, although, repeating from earlier post, PC fascism may prevent further analysis. Either way, a valuable piece of investigative reporting.

Forget for a moment that we don't know how the infractions break down...aren't you intrigued by the correlation itself?? But even if we did know the breakdown, the same argument can be made ad infinitum -- the study reports what it does, on correlations between schools and disciplinary actions (for behavior unbefitting of a doctor). Narrowing down the term, for example to test a hypothesis that there are independent causes for different types of infractions, is a different study. This one found a correlation for the more general term, used as a rough measure of physician "incompetency".

An individual student who is determined to come out of these schools a well trained doctor has nothing to fear.

Maybe not 'fear', but certainly something to consider -- don't believe that this study is being dismissed as quickly by state boards and residency programs. All are now forced to contemplate the possible causes of the correlation (again, this is what I'd say is the most valuable part of the study, indeed maybe that's why the title is sensationalistic...). Some will choose to make premature inferences, and more will at the very least raise their eyebrows at these 4 schools. Thus, something to consider, and maybe to fear...

But misappropriations are not good reasons to denounce the results or undermine their importance, just as I would argue that what was reported in the Bell Curve should not be dismissed because it wasn't Politically Correct, since there's the risk, and this was an actual argument, that "people will misuse the information [to justify racism/racist policy]" (!).

A lot of infractions seem to be coming from sue happy California!

..which serves to increase sample size and stat. significance.

- Pitman
 
Members don't see this ad :)
Originally posted by pitman

Forget for a moment that we don't know how the infractions break down...aren't you intrigued by the correlation itself??

I think the correlation is interesting but perhaps not surprising given that these schools are the product of the segregationist era when schools for black scholars were "separate but equal" but were anything but "equal" Some of the doctors cited might have been trained in that era and in the years immediately following when the school was trying to catch up to its peers.

In any case it is irresponsible to make accusations about the school when the additional investigation required to determine if the school is at fault has not been done. This is a very sensitive area for very good reason. A large proportion of the population of this country would have received no healthcare at all if it were not for these schools during the darker days of this country's history which ended not so long ago. So it is critical that the facts be determined before accusations are leveled at the school. It could be that the school in the present day has finally caught up to its peers and what you are seeing is the product of a bygone era. I do not know and neither do the authors of the study. On an absolute basis and considering the history of this country are the numbers that surprising or even problematic?

The schools with the highest number of infractions on an absolute basis are the following

UT Galveston 125
U of Illinois Chicago 169
U of Tenessee 107
Indiana 126
U of Michigan 111
Santo Thomas Phillipines 140
Loma Linda 121
Guadalajara 155
Howard 120
MeHarry 140

Giving the history of these schools is it surprising or shocking or that they are on this list which includes some very prestigious institutions?

Is it worthy of further investigation? I would say yes and maybe steps should be taken to correct any remaining present day deficiencies at all of the schools which have cited doctors.

As I said these steps may have already been taken since the doctors cited were trained in prior years.
 
Originally posted by pitman
since they DO metaphorically "flunk" the statistical test ;)), there isn't much to argue with
- Pitman

The only thing I can say to this is given the critical mission of these schools who is to say that Meharry's 4.38% rate is flunking and UC Irvine's 2.19% rate is passing? Maybe that is the price we are paying for our shameful history.
 
skypilot,

you are treading dangerously close to a "Howard/Meharry are special therefore they are exempt from all criticism" fallacy
 
Originally posted by skypilot
I think the correlation is interesting but perhaps not surprising given that these schools are the product of the segregationist era when schools for black scholars were "separate but equal" but were anything but "equal"

Now I'm not sure you even read my posts (you don't address anything I've said except to concede that you find the correlation interesting) -- YES, there are reasonable explanations for the correlations that point to things other than school quality. That has nothing to do with my criticism of your posts (see mine above, and more below). It seems (by your comments) you seek only to find *excuses* for the schools, rather than to even consider potentially indicting causes for the correlation (subtle logic here, but a world of difference).

In any case it is irresponsible to make accusations about the school when the additional investigation required to determine if the school is at fault has not been done. This is a very sensitive area for very good reason.

Again, with the possible exception of the inflammatory title (sorry, I mistakenly referred to it as a sub-title, above) of the article (is that the only beef you have with it? more in my next post), there aren't any irresponsible accusations being made about the quality of the schools! The article content reported the correlation, gave what little other relevant data was available, and then included differing opinions of/reactions to their findings (with some negative comments), and that's pretty much it, yet with irony written all over it:

Consider this hilariously self-indicting criticism made by a rep of the AAMC, an organization that won't even disseminate its data that would help explain the correlation:

"I think it's kind of an irrational approach to analyzing a very complex set of issues"

!!! no duh! so give it up!

There are all sorts of mental masturbatory hypothetical explanations for the correlations. If one looked at any one of the 4 schools, or two, even more such hypothetical explanations could be given. The authors gave two *reasonable* explanations, that are actually verifyable, had they access to the relevant data, that could/would apply to the 4 (Occam applied to stats: seek the fewest number of (common) variables to explain the (common) results). And then they solicited differing views, on the record.

The implicit call is precisely for further studies with more data, not an indictment (the remark made about how data is being withheld that is needed to help give insight into the correlation was a bold dare put out by the authors, and that tradition of institutional secrecy is likewise the reason Ralph Nader built his (independently collated) national database in the first place...).


As to the race card: I'm not sure why you bring up the sensitivity of the race topic, unless you are also saying that therefore the study (and thus the subject matter) should be dismissed outright, which you seem not to be saying -- surely you don't think controversy trumps the search for truth.

If I were to show you results of a moderately valid statistical analysis (using the only data available), showing "only" that two groups of people differed in measured IQ by, say, 2 standard deviations, would your first response be: A) there are many possible *explanations* for the correlation (between group & IQ), so stop making accusations; or B) IQ is too sensitive a topic for us to look at the results/causes fairly, so stop making accusations; or C) that's interesting, and there are many important implications concerning IQ, so let's try to find out why the correlation exists, and which implications apply.

??


The schools with the highest number of infractions on an absolute basis are the following

UT Galveston 125
U of Illinois Chicago 169
U of Tenessee 107
...

Giving the history of these schools is it surprising or shocking or that they are on this list which includes some very prestigious institutions?

Since when do absolute numbers allow such comparisons?? If school X turned out 99/100 doctors who were child molesters, and school Y turned out 100/100000, would you make the above comparison/argument, and try to undermine the result (the correlation itself) with hypothetical explanations? Here you've made an argument, albeit a flawed one, against (by ignoring) the findings of the study -- the correlation itself that holds across several databases (which was based on %).

As I said these [corrective] steps may have already been taken since the doctors cited were trained in prior years.

Yes, MAYBE, assuming any of the schools or residency boards, etc., knew the correlation existed, and futher reflected on the possibility that their step in the process was in part to blame, both without having done the unique study in the first place. Or, MAYBE, by chance, the steps were taken blindly. As stated in prior post, it would be interesting to see whether the correlation has any predictive value, but a "maybe" doesn't diminish the seriousness with which the correlation needs to be looked at.

Here's another way to look at my whole problem with what you're doing, skypilot: there's a study, showing a correlation between schools and disciplinary action, and your reaction has been to attack inferences that aren't being made, and to try to come up with potential excuses (one-sided scenarios) that somehow defeat the findings of the study, which are the correlations themselves. All pre-emptive strikes against potential faulty reasoning? or an attempt to squash the actual findings, which DO have implications by themselves (see prior posts)?

Or we can try line-by-line: which/whose accusations are you attempting to counter?

-Pitman
 
Originally posted by skypilot (in response to Pitman)


--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Originally posted by pitman:
since they DO metaphorically "flunk" the statistical test ;)), there isn't much to argue with
- Pitman
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

The only thing I can say to this is given the critical mission of these schools who is to say that Meharry's 4.38% rate is flunking and UC Irvine's 2.19% rate is passing? Maybe that is the price we are paying for our shameful history.

Or to not presume(!), maybe their mission is outlived, but we'd never know, with your approach, would we?

But the devil is in the context:

1) yes, the title was inflammatory, but as stated, is often changed by editors (e.g., to sensationalize), but further may have been sensationalized to make for a more balsy dare (to have more data released by the gatekeepers). Is this the ONLY seeming accusation you are pointing to?

2) You again make the mistake of taking two schools whose measures are close to each other in a single database, when the one in the bottom 5% is also in the bottom 5% in the other two databases, while the one that is not, is not. Cross-apply my response (far above) for one reason why this is silly in statistics.

3) To the extent that Meharry fits the correlation, it indeed has "flunked" the correlation test -- this is, as stated, metaphorically correct (the smiley indicates the humor in my ironic assertion). You're objecting to a metaphor? Certainly, it can't be that you're objecting to any literal meaning (it's a metaphor)! So your beef is that it's not an *apt* metaphor? Is that what all the fuss is about?

;)

-Pitman
 
Originally posted by pitman
Again, with the possible exception of the inflammatory title
there aren't any irresponsible accusations being made about the quality of the schools!

The title of the article is very important as becomes the focus for all the debate.

I am not making excuses for any schools which have quality problems. They should be investigated and corrected. There are many other avenues for investigating and improving the quality of a medical school other than sensational journalism. Again, it is irresponsible to level the blame at the medical school before the truth has been determined.

As I stated before the medical profession needs better methods for policing its members and removing those who are incompetent, criminal, or insane.

I tire of this subject. But it was interesting for a while.

;)
 
Originally posted by pitman

Since when do absolute numbers allow such comparisons??-Pitman

UT Galveston 125
U of Illinois Chicago 169
U of Tenessee 107
Indiana 126
U of Michigan 111
Santo Thomas Phillipines 140
Loma Linda 121
Guadalajara 155
Howard 120
MeHarry 140

Absolute numbers are important when the cause of the correlation has not been determined and the data is being used to indict a medical school based on relatively small percentage differences (nothing near the 99/100 versus 100/100000 differences you cited!).

Why are the University of Illinois in Chicago, Loma Linda, and University of Indiana, with all their resources and their highly selective admissions policies each producing more infractions than Howard?

The data deserves further study. But it is neither shocking nor surprising.
 
Originally posted by skypilot

The title of the article is very important as becomes the focus for all the debate.

So indeed, your only problem is the title itself!

1) When you evaluate the results of a research paper, do you dwell (primarily look at) the title of the paper, EVEN IF metaphorical(!), or do you critique the Results and Discussion sections?

2) Metaphorically speaking, the schools DO "flunk" the "test". If certain students flunked some exam, one *could* argue "there are all sorts of non-indicting reasons why this happened, so stop making accusations by saying that they flunked!" Flunking does not necessarily mean the students are dumb, or that the rest of the academic *process* doesn't have flaws, nonetheless it is perfectly valid/fair to say that the students flunked. Likewise, if a school has a statistically high percentage of flunkers, it is fair to say (particularly since metaphorical) that the school has "flunked", even if one can point at any number of *reasons* why the flunking occurred, reasons that put the *blame* elsewhere. In other words, the correlation itself is what allows the METAPHOR (and "flunk" can ONLY be taken metaphorically here) -- statistically speaking, INDEPENDENT OF BLAME, the schools "flunk".

3) You're dangerously close here to the PC argument that perception matters more than reality.

The above points were all made earlier, and remain unaddressed.

Absolute numbers are important when the cause of the correlation has not been determined and the data is being used to indict a medical school based on relatively small percentage differences (nothing near the 99/100 versus 100/100000 differences you cited!).

Why are the University of Illinois in Chicago, Loma Linda, and University of Indiana, with all their resources and their highly selective admissions policies each producing more infractions than Howard?

Nope. I'm afraid you need to take some (more?) stats courses -- this is nonsense, absolute numbers only make sense here to evaluate statistical significance and its cousin, power (to examing significance in the face of known factors), which you certainly aren't doing here (by your 'Why...' question where you compare absolutes). How "small" a "percentage difference" is indeed can only be DETERMINED by looking at sample size, not the other way around. The extreme analogy I gave remains a valid argument by reductio ad absurdum.

Citing the sizes *could* make for a valid argument (er, indictment) if you were instead attempting to do a quantitative analysis to show insufficient statistical significance, across the three databases, which would be attacking the correlation itself, not giving insight into "cause".

If what you're trying to do is show that there are many factors to look at, and the sample size is too small to give sufficient power (akin to your argument in your first post), which is not at all what you say here, then you are only attacking inferences about causation that aren't being made.

But you're right, this is tiresome, as you don't seem to understand the arguments, or statistics.

So far, the study critics are the only ones who are truly doing any premature indicting. The title effectively was bait, for naysayers like yourself, who complain only about lack of examined possible causes, and for those like the president of the AAMC who don't disseminate the necessary data(!) that are indeed needed to test their very own indictments, rather than focusing on the correlation (the study) itself.

To say that the title is the issue is to say that the actual results (the correlation) don't matter, or that they deserve attacking, just because some people don't understand the point, or the irony, of using a metaphor (which was very clever, as stated earlier), or because someone *may* get the wrong idea about the findings.

-Pitman
 
Originally posted by pitman
Metaphorically speaking, the schools DO "flunk" the "test".

You're dangerously close here to the PC argument that perception matters more than reality.

Nope. I'm afraid you need to take some (more?) stats courses --

or the irony, of using a metaphor (which was very clever, as stated earlier), or because someone *may* get the wrong idea about the findings.

-Pitman

Pitman you are descending quickly. And your arguments are difficult to follow because of your convoluted logic and language.

What is this arbitrary "test" that the schools flunk? 2.9 out of 100 doctors instead of 2 out of 100 doctors have received disciplinary actions. Why is this surprising or even interesting?

The metaphor is "inflammatory." The study deserves further investigation but no conclusions can be drawn from its results.
 
Originally posted by skypilot
Pitman you are descending quickly. And your arguments are difficult to follow because of your convoluted logic and language.

What is this arbitrary "test" that the schools flunk? 2.9 out of 100 doctors instead of 2 out of 100 doctors have received disciplinary actions. Why is this surprising or even interesting?

The metaphor is "inflammatory." The study deserves further investigation but no conclusions can be drawn from its results.

skypilot -- convoluted logic? convoluted language?? If you could specify/explain a particular convolution, then maybe it could be evaluated fairly! (same applies to the supposed accusations you claim were made by the study authors). Otherwise, you're just blowing smoke.

The "test" is statistical (the same term is used in the field, e.g., "t-test", "hypothesis test", test of correlation). The *test* is for correlations beween schools and disciplinary action across data sets. To "flunk" a statistical test is metaphorical, and thus can be taken to mean to fall on the bottom of desirable results, consistently, across data sets; or more concisely, to fit the correlation (with undesirable results). That the semblance of a play on words still eludes you demonstrates your continued misunderstanding of statistics and/or of metaphors.

Again, if you were to do the quantitative analysis for significance (another term with specific meaning in stats, giving the odds that the results could arise from chance alone), or with a cogent argument taking principles of statistics into account, you might then be able to make a reasonable claim that two data are or are not very different. Otherwise, you cannot (since I know you aren't relying on an expert's evaluation of significance). 1.999999999 can be very (significantly) different from 2.000000000, in any study, if the distribution is small enough and/or if the number of samples is large enough. But this doesn't just reflect some academic or arbitrarily myopic definition of the term, "significance" -- the statistical defn. of significance is, rather, the only one that makes any sense for the evaluation of the differences among data. And it has nothing to do with, and is not determined by, looking at absolute numbers when rate is of obvious concern, not by eyeballing two numbers and assuming they're similar, and not by applying a (arbitrary or not) standard of what numerical values constitute "incompetency".

To look at test results that show a correlation across three data sets, and to merely pick two points you think aren't all that different (because you *think* 2.0% is not very different than 2.9%) from a single dataset, and to then claim therefore the results don't show anything significant, 1) is illogical; 2) ignores how statistics is used and why; 3) is as irresponsible as the accusations you claim have been made by the authors!

To claim that the title is irresponsible because it's used "for all the debate", or that it implies that the authors are confusing correlation with causation, 1) is groundless; 2) ignores/contradicts the content of the story; 3) confuses metaphors with the literal; 4) feeds the PC fascist argument that perception trumps truth.

Yes, the title is inflammatory, to those who don't look for subtlety and who don't see that it's a metaphor. Such is life.

No, the title is not a conclusion other than one made by the test itself, i.e., the correlation.

No, many conclusions can be drawn from the results -- not that 4 schools suck (you're hung up on this, as though all stats serve only to reveal causality), but, for example, that there is a correlation with particular schools (that's indeed a conclusion); that the correlation is not some random fluke; that more data could elucidate the findings; that the gatekeepers, the loudest critics of the study, are the same ones preventing further analyses; and that all the time, no matter how something is reported, some people will just never get the point...

-Pitman
 
BTW don't take my criticism or apparent tone harshly -- if we were in person, you'd see the winks, my love of irony and of course a healthy dose of flippancy :p

Also, didn't you say elsewhere that you've applied to one Aussie school, USyd? If so, why only one? I'm applying to three, figure I should check out the schools in person.

-Pitman
 
Top