That is why I asked if you are even in medical school. This is all some of the bare bones basics on this topic. It is a common topic of teaching on medical school teaching rounds by the MS3 level at least. The topic can get quite complicated and debated. However, your questions, opinions and final conclusions/suggestion seems based in a lack of the basics.
Your patient is admitted to hospital
Your patient is Hospitalized
Your patient has some degree of immobility, probably greater then 48 hours
Your patient has some degree of endothelial damage
?did your patient have surgery for head bleed/clot removal
It may be nice academia as to was it a weak vessel that caused the bleed or was it a clot from the ventricle in afib or parodoxic clot from PFO with DVT, etc.... But, ultimately ALL irrelevant when discussion DVT
prophylaxis (PFO/AFib scenarios are treatment, etc...). The point is prophylaxis is for prevention in the face of increased risk/etc.... Negative extremity duplex does not impact the decision to prophylax. If you found a clot, you would not prophylax because you would be
treating...
In conclusion, my question still stands as to what your foundation/background is.....
Agreed. For those without the background or understanding, we are talking about prophylaxtic dose...If going for generalizations.... then your statement would generally be WRONG. What you suspect would NOT be the general consensus....