A serum PSA in a prostate CA patient * is not* therapeutic just because it provides info to guide local and systemic treatment.
If you are going to answer with arguments like that, please do quote the entire passage I wrote, rather than snipping out a part.
I wrote:
Both in cN0 and cN1 patients axillary dissection is diagnostic and therapeutic.
In cN0 you get the information of whether or not the axilla is involved. In cN1 patients you get the information on "how much" it is involved.
In both cases you can utilize this infomation to guide further treatment, both locoregional and systemic.
Resecting further, non-enlarged nodes in cN0 and cN1 patients can be therapeutic too if they are involved. If applying local treatment to microscopic disease was never therapeutic then all the trials on RNI would also have come up negative. Affected but clinically negative nodes in the axilla are as dangerous as affected but clinically negative nodes in the supraclavicular fossa. I do not have the data to show for the same thing in surgery, I grant you that. But saying that surgically treating clinically negative nodes in (breast) cancer is only diagnostic is in my opinion a matter of debate.
Is that clear now? The first passage addresses the diagnostic, the second the therapeutic value.
Now wait a sec. Didn't Z0011 disprove this?
Am I wrong?
Z0011 is one of the most misinterpreted trials.
Noone really knows what radiotherapy was used in Z0011 because surgeons designed and ran the trial without talking with radiation oncologists. No complete documentation of treated fields, no quality review, no guidelines for contouring. When a subset of patients was analyzed, results were appalling.
Most patients treated in Z0011 received tangential RT alone, and some received no RT at all. Some patients received directed nodal irradiation via a third field. Further research is necessary to determine the optimal RT approach in patients with low-volume axillary disease treated with SLND alone.
www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov
The trial recruited poorly and was shut down before reaching its recruitment goal, 38% of the patients only had micrometastasis in the nodes.
I have no idea. Perhaps just bad luck?
I cannot imagine how axillary RT can lead to a higher incidence of contralateral breast cancer.
If you look at the data in the paper you may notice that the rate of invasive lobular carcinoma was slightly higher in the RT group and antihormonal treatment was delivered slightly less often in the RT group too. We have no information on the adherence to antihormonal treatment. Perhaps the patients that got the more "extensive" RT thought they wouldn't need to take anti-hormonal treatment for that long?
We have seen that happen in DCIS. Patients who opt for adjuvant RT in DCIS without Tamoxifen end up having a higher rate of contralateral DCIS than ipsilateral DCIS recurrence.
Do you TRULY believe that.
You're making a bunch of noise about axillary dissections, whilst at the same time the s'clav is NEVER dissected, anywhere, by anyone. "A node by any other name would not be as sweet..." Carrying forth the "axilla needs a good dissection" logic means the s'clav (and IMNs) do too. A reductio ad absurdum.
Some statisticians would argue they are negative.
They were negative for survival advantages (p=0.06 to 0.4).
They were anemically positive for DFS and local controls.
The biggest, most impressive statistical differences from "all the trials on RNI" (2 trials? 3?): doing RNI always adds more toxicity (p<0.001).
Let me get back to the two cases I put up:
Case 1:
55 year old lady, pT1c (17 mm) pN1 (2/6; 8mm, no ECE) cM0 G2 ER+ PR- Her2neu- OncotypeDx low risk, treated with BCS and SLNB followed by axillary dissection, will receive letrozole
What are you treating?
I have no idea, why they only got 6 nodes out. S**t happens...
Case 2:
55 year old lady, pT1c (17 mm) pN1 (2/18; 8mm, no ECE) cM0 G2 ER+ PR- Her2neu- OncotypeDx low risk, treeated with BCS and SLNB followed by axillary dissection, will receive letrozole
What are you treating?
Both Scarbtj and Evilbooyaa would treat them the same: Tangents + SCV. Whether or not it's high tangents or not, is not clear to me, but it's not really relevant.
No why would you treat them like that?
Tangents for breast are a no-brainer. Ok.
Why target SCV though?
Let's run the MSKCC & MD Anderson nomogram.
Case 1 (with only 6 resected nodes) has a chance of further axillary nodes of 27% per MSKCC and 10% per MD Anderson.
Case 2 (with 18 resected nodes) has a chance of further axillary nodes of 13% per MSKCC and 0% per MD Anderson. (The risk is probably even lower, since both nomograms allow to enter a lower maximum number of resected nodes)
Now let's presume that the truth is somewhere in between:
Case 1 has a 18% probability for additional nodes, Case 2 has a 7% chance.
So... Let's presume that axillary radiotherapy and antihormonal treatment will both reduce the risk of recurrence by 1/3. Some may even say that they would each halve it. We know they do in the primary, so why should it not happen in the axilla too?
That means that Case 1 is left with 6% and Case 2 with 2% risk for recurrence. Not delivering radiotherapy will lead to a risk of 12% and 4% respectively.
So, the treatment you are both
not willing to give for Case 1 leads to a 6% higher chance of recurrence. According to this calculation, but you can very well provide your own.
Yet, you are treating the SCV. Based on what evidence? MA20 and EORTC 22922. Great! Both cases would fit the trial, early breast cancer with limited axillary involvement (albeit EORTC asked for a full ALND).
Both trials treated breast +/- SCV/IM. And what the difference? 5% for MA20 and 3% for EORTC in terms of DFS.
If you take a look at the underpowered subgroup analysis no hint is there showing that this rather favorable patient in terms of biology (luminal A, postmenopausal) will benefit more; she's probably at the lower end in terms of DFS benefit based on those trials. And I am not going to break it down to SCV/IM, let's just say that all the benefit comes from SCV.
What is my point?
I would treat case 1 with RT to the breast, axilla, SCV. Why? Because there is a substantial chance of additional positive nodes in the axilla. And why am I treating the SCV? Because there is quite some chance that this lady may have >3 nodes in the axilla, in which case its quite clear she would benefit from SCV-irradiation.
I would treat case 2 with tangets to the breast only. Why? I think that this patient with a favorable biology has a small risk for occult disease in regional nodes. After ALND with a quite high number of nodes her risk for lymphedema with RNI will be elevated.
I know that's not NCCN-conform.